My heart is sinking as David Miliband opens the third reading debate on the EU (Amendment) Bill. Yet again all the same old arguments are going to be thrashed out, no doubt at great length, and repetitively. It’s all important, I know, and sometimes it’s great fun, but déjà vu or rather entendu is definitely part of the whole experience.
I thought I’d take this opportunity though to respond to a post from Iain Dale on a new clause Bill Cash wanted inserted into the Bill. It said –
Notwithstanding any provision of the European Communities Act 1972, nothing in this Act shall affect or be construed by any court in the United Kingdom as affecting the supremacy of the United Kingdom Parliament.
I disagree with Iain: not on the desirability of Parliamentary sovereignty, but on the desirability of this amendment. It makes no sense, for more than one reason.
First of all, there’s a very strong argument that it would have no effect since no provision in either this Bill or in the ECA 1972 affects Parliamentary sovereignty at all (I think it’s potentially confusing to talk of Parliamentary “supremacy”). Parliament can always repeal the 1972 Act (which would amount to leaving the EU, or at least causing a huge international political crisis by, in effect, repudiating all EU rules), and that proves that sovereignty is intact. Only if somehow Parliament’s ability to repeal that Act were curtailed would sovereignty be limited.
This is why I don’t like the way people sometimes explain the workings of the Human Rights Act (which allows Parliament to legislate contrary to Convention rights) as “preserving Parliamentary sovereignty”. Since Parliament can always repeal the HRA, it could never have affected sovereignty anyway, regardless of the model it adopted for protecting human rights.
It’s true that both those Acts, the ECA and the HRA, do not admit of implied repeal in the way most Acts do: to that extent the traditional doctrine of implied repeal, which is an application of Parliamentary sovereignty, has been modified. But that’s not because of Europe, or human rights. It’s because of the way those Acts are drafted, so as to provide that today’s legislation, unless repealed, colours tomorrow’s legislation. Any Act which attempts the same effect will oust implied repeal in the same way; and the fact that Parliament can do this shows the extent of its sovereignty, not its limits. Here’s an interesting article which discusses these issues from a New Zealand perspective. From what I’ve said it’ll be clear that I disagree with Laws LJ’s theory in the Thoburn (or “metric martyrs) case that the ECA and HRA are special because they are “constitutional” in nature. That’s not the point. The issue is one of statutory intepretation where two Acts apparently conflict: can Parliament expressly make any provision overriding subsequent legislation which impliedly contradicts it? The ECA, the HRA and Thoburn show that it can.
So Bill Cash’s clause, even if passed, would not mean that the 1972 Act, which brings into our own law the doctrine of the supremacy (the right word in this context) of EU law, would be weakened in any way. The supremacy of EU law is perfectly reconcilable with Parliamentary sovereignty since it persists only so long as Parliament wills it.
I think William Hague recognises what I’m saying’s right, which is what explains why the Tories didn’t support the amendment. He’s talked in today’s debate about “ultimate Parliamentary sovereignty”, which he clearly thinks persists, and by which he can only mean what I’m talking about. Where I disagree with him is his suggestion that this “ultimate Parliamentary sovereignty” might need some entrenched constitutional protection. It doesn’t! And it’s amazing to hear a Tory talking this dangerous “written constitution” nonsense.
Secondly, nothing in “this Act” i.e. the EU (Amendment) Bill, would affect sovereignty even if you think these things are irreconcilable. It’s the 1972 Act itself, not this Bill, that provides for the supremacy of EU law – so preserving sovereignty from the Bill would make no difference.
The truth is that Bill Cash’s aims can only be achieved by repealing section 2 of the 1972 Act, or at least subsections (1) and (4).
He’s obsessed with dicta of Lord Denning in the case of McCarthy’s v Smith back in the 1970s, in particular his suggestion that
If the time should come when our Parliament deliberately passes an Act with the intention of repudiating the Treaty or any provision in it or intentionally of acting inconsistently with it and says so in express terms then I should have thought that it would be the duty of our courts to follow the statute of our Parliament.
You can find the full quote at this Eurosceptic website.
Well, Lord Denning’s right in this entirely orthodox view of constitutional law. But on the basis of this Bill Cash wants to insert “notwithstanding any provision of the ECA 1972” all over the statute book, in the attempt to override the supremacy of EU law. Well, he has a sort of point: you could indeed draft an Act in a specific policy area, say, a fisheries restricting British waters to British boats, so as to exclude EU law. If I were drafting it, I’d say the 1972 had no effect in relation to it, or something similar.
But clearly that would provoke a legal and constitutional crisis, and the UK could still be fined by the ECJ for its non-compliance with the common fisheries policy. No: the only real way to achieve what Bill Cash wants is to leave the EU and repeal the 1972 Act. I wish he’d be open about that.
I’d like to leave you with another bit from that Lord Denning quote – a bit that Bill Cash doesn’t often quote.
This means that ultimate sovereignty still rests with Parliament: Community Law prevails only because Parliament wants it to prevail. Parliament could always repeal the European Communities Act and then Community law would cease to have effect in the United Kingdom.
Lord Denning’s other observation about European Community law being like an “incoming tide” was also very apt. Like it or not, the law of the European Communities has an existential need to be supreme and to override national systems. However, it may only be “supreme” in relation to national law whilst the nation state is a member. The member nations have retained their right to withdraw and in that sense our Parliament retained its supremacy. Whilst in the club you obey the rules of the club – it’s really that basic!
If the fancy strikes, would you consider writing a hypothetical piece about what would happen if the EC Act 1972 was repealed.
For instance, water quality is governed by EU directive/regulations. Would water quality suddenly suffer? I doubt it. Age-ism, Sexism; would they all become rampant? Again, I doubt it: it depends upon the manner of repeal of the EC Act 1972. It would be unthinkable to leave a huge vacuum of laws that we rely on daily which would’ve been put in place in the absence of membership of the EU.
I imagine that a repeal law would be a plugging law; (talking of which, isn’t their a doctrine of something like statutory estoppel? ). The legislation would enable and maintain the legality of SIs related to the EC Act 1972; the difference being that they would be amenable for review by Parliament.
Comments very much invited. I assume that some of the above is total b*lls, but please say why.
Am I right in assuming that the UK Parliament can exercise its sovereignty by repealing the ECA 1972, and that then all EU Treaties including Lisbon would no longer apply to the UK. In that case, why are we bothering to invoke Lisbon Article 50 – with all the long drawn out negotiations that will entail? Why not just repeal the 1972 Act and have done with it?
Hi can we repeal the 1972 European communities act to actually leave the EU.
How would it be done?
Who could do it?
How long would it take
I hoped that a constitutional lawyer would answer my original question about the repeal of the ECA. As far as I am aware, a majority vote in Westminster is sufficient to repeal the Act. This could be done tomorrow!. Then we could proceed to unpick those EU-inspired laws we do not like and maintain those we do. We would trade with all the world under WTO rules ; trade agreements may well be useful but are not obligatory (Russia, USA and China currently trade with the EU without one). John Redwood advocates this approach, which would obviate all the negotiations required under Para 2 of Art 50.
I am also desperate for us to repeal the 1972. For years people who I know who wanted to leave, have said that is all we need to do. And let the EU negotiate with us, instead of us with them afterwards! They need us more than we need them, judging by the state of our European neighbours. As far as I know 1972 was the first Act that got us into the EU and underpins all the rest. Therefore if repealed, all future laws, treaties, Acts would be null and void.
Apparently also, the study of constitutional law has been discouraged since the 50s (correct me if I am wrong) and so there are less of those lawyers to advise.
But if correct, we would be wise to do this and get on with trading with the world! Apparently 23 countries lining up at the moment. Probably more.
Anonymous,
You said:
I’m afraid I will have to correct you on that! I’ve taught constitutional law myself for quite a long time, and all law students have to study it. The demand for constitutional lawyers is overwhelmingly in government and academia, and I don’t think there’s any shortage of them.